Procedures for Air Navigation Services :Aircraft Operation - Air Regulations - RK Bali

#1. PANS-OPS means:

Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures

Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations

#2. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called:

PANS-OPS Doc 8168

The Convention of Chicago

The Air Navigation bulletin

#3. Which of the following defines transition altitude?

The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QNH

The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to QNH

The altitude at which 1013 hPa is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level

#4. The Transition Level:

Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP

Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command

#5. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

Altitude above mean sea level during climb

Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

Altitude above mean sea level during descent

#6. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent

At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent

Only at transition altitude

#7. Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

FL 65

FL 75

FL 70

#8. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude

Flight level on or below the transition level

Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude

#9. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

As altitude

As flight level

As height

#10. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

1000ft

1500ft

4000ft

#11. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPa when passing:

Transition altitude

The level specified by ATC

Transition layer

#12. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to:

4550 metres

455 metres

15 000 metres

#13. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:

At a known elevation on the aerodrome

On the manoeuvring area

On the apron

#14. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with SSR?

Distress 7600, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7700

Distress 7500, Hijacking 7700, Communication failure 7600

Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600

#15. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:

Use only the word ROGER

Use only the word WILCO

Read back the mode and code to be set

#16. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:

Requested by ATC

They operate a transponder with Mode C

They operate within controlled airspace

#17. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:

Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace

Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions

Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC

#18. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace

Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes

#19. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:

7600 Mode C

7700 Mode C

0000 Mode C

#20. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

2000

7700

7600

#21. When the aircraft carries a serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:

When the aircraft carries a serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: Regardless of ATC instructions

Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Only when directed by ATC

#22. During a pre-flight, an SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible:

A flight to the closest airport, where a repair can be made is allowed

A flight cannot be made

It is necessary to specify this failure in the appropriate field of the flight plan

#23. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

7500

7700

7000

#24. On receipt of a TA, pilots shall:

Respond immediately by following the TA as indicated

Not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to traffic advisories (TAs) only

Notify the appropriate ATC unit of the TA

#25. Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in:

Both B) and C) are correct.

The enhancement of situational awareness

The active search for, and visual acquisition of, conflicting traffic

#26. What are the two main objectives of altimeter setting?

To read height and barometric pressure

QNH to be set in the vicinity of the aerodrome and QFE en route

To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation

#27. Which of the following correctly defines altitude?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

#28. Which of the following correctly defines height?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to touchdown

#29. Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation

Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

#30. If the QNH is 991 mb where is FL? (Assume 1 mb= 30 ft)

Below sea level

660 ft above mean sea level

660 ft above the transition level

#31. Which of the following is the location of FL?

The first flight level above the transition level

The level defined with reference to a QNH of 1013.25mb

The atmospheric pressure level of 1013.25mb

#32. What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

For given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500' if below FL290

IFR levels are flown on mag tracks from 000 to 179 and VFR levels from 180 to 359

VFR levels may be flown in VMC or IMC, but IFR levels must only be flown in IMC

#33. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?

On engine start

In the taxi clearance

In the ATC clearance

#34. If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

Regional QFF

The lowest forecast pressure setting with respect to MSL for the area in which you are flying

The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome

#35. If you are flying en route below the transition level but are well briefed with regard to safety altitude, from where would you get altimeter setting information whilst airborne?

You only need the departure aerodrome and destination aerodrome QNH and then interpolate the difference whilst en route

Ask the met man to forecast the QNH for the route before you take off

Ask the FIS controller for local aerodrome QNHs

#36. You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10nm from the edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?

On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly at

On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land

When descending below the transition altitude

#37. You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

The height of the aeroplane above the datum

The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static vent

The altitude of the aeroplane above the datum

#38. In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration?

1, 2 and 5

All the above

1, 2, 3 and 5

#39. What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

3.30%

2.80%

2.50%

#40. You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

Standby

A/1234+C

A/2000+C

#41. Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hijacking). Without upsetting the man with the gun, what would you squawk?

Either A/7700 or A/7500 depending upon the situation

A/7600+C

A/7500+C

#42. What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?

Switch the set off

Try recycling the transponder and set 7777 to maximise the response

Tell ATC

#43. Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

A/8765+C

A/7777+C

A/2000+C

#44. On a single SSR control box/selector system (i.e., no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?

Squawk 'standby,' then change the code; then Squawk 'normal.'

Squawk 'off,' then change the code; then Squawk 'normal.'

Only change one digit at a time

#45. What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

Advisory, Counselling and Arbitration Service

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

Automatic Collision Avoidance System

#46. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Obstacle identification surface

Obstacle in surface

Obstacle identification slope

#47. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Departure end of runway

Distance end of runway

Departure end of route

#48. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:

10NM

25NM

30NM

#49. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

Glide path

Approach to landing

Go around / Missed Approach

#50. A radial is:

A magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR

A magnetic bearing to a VOR station

A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station

#51. A circling approach is:

A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

A contact flight manoeuvre

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

#52. What is the meaning of MEHT?

Maximum eye height

Minimum eye height

Mean height over threshold

#53. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:

The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements

The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

#54. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:

1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass

1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass

#55. Maximum permissible bank angle in a holding pattern is _____ degrees:

35

30

25

#56. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Visual manoeuvring (circling)

Contact approach

Aerodrome traffic pattern

#57. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within:

25°

12.5°

15°

#58. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

0ft

3.3% gradient

35ft

#59. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:

15° of the alignment of the runway centreline

10° of the alignment of the runway centreline

25° of the alignment of the runway centreline

#60. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

To request from ATC different heading for wind correction

To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track

#61. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

Navigation aids

The terrain surrounding the airport

ATC requirements

#62. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?

120 m (394 ft)

Transition altitude

1000 ft

#63. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:

ATC availability and requirements

Availability of navigation aids

The terrain surrounding the aerodrome

#64. SID terminates at:

The first fix of the en-route phase.

Point 15 nms from DER on departure leg.

A fix decided by the pilot before reaching TOC

#65. A public transport aircraft shall not take off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory:

Cloud ceiling and RVR

MDH and RVR

Cloud base and RVR

#66. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than:

Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator

Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator

Half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centreline

#67. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

The operator

The pilot in command

The state

#68. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Final missed approach track

MAP

Landing runway

#69. A circling approach is:

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

A visual flight manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC

A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

#70. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

Only for categories C, D and E aircraft

For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them

For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

#71. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach” is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:

30 degrees or less

40 degrees or less

20 degrees or less

#72. If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken?

Initiate a missed approach

Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude

If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

#73. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

20NM

5NM

25NM

#74. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach…

Using bearing, elevation and distance information

Carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method

Using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information

#75. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:

Visual approach

Visual manoeuvring (circling)

Aerodrome traffic pattern

#76. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

IF

FAF

FAP

#77. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

#78. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:

Procedure turn

Base turn

Race track

#79. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

Procedure turn

Reversal track

Race track

#80. “You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: The pilot has the landing threshold in sight The visual reference has been established and can be maintained The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:”

1, 2

1,2,3

2,3

#81. In an offset entry into an omni-directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

1 minute 30 seconds

2 minutes

1 minute

#82. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Procedure turn

Based turn

Shuttle

#83. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final

Initial, intermediate and final

Initial and final

#84. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to:

MSL

Threshold

Highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome

#85. What is gradient for departure runway?

2.50%

2.80%

3.30%

#86. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between:

3 and 7NM

3 and 10NM

5 and 10NM

#87. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:

The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height loss on any go around

The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around

The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors

#88. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?

300 m (984 ft)

200 m (656 ft)

Reducing from 300 m to 150 m

#89. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

The operator

The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator

The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome

#90. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?

3/4 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach

10 NM either side of the approach path

#91. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

Course

Track

Heading

#92. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:

5°

20°

10°

#93. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

2 minutes

1 minute

1 minute 30 seconds

#94. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25°, whichever requires the lesser bank

Rate of 3°/sec

Rate of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 20°, whichever requires the lesser bank

#95. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:

To the right

To the left

In a direction depending on the wind direction

#96. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?

15 degrees bank angle maximum

3 degrees per second

5 degrees per second

#97. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?

Nil

100 m

300 m

#98. An expected approach time is given:

When an aircraft is instructed to hold

Once an aircraft has been holding for 20 minutes

On all flights

#99. When you are asked to hold on a non-standard holding fix (e.g., en route), what direction are the turns made?

At pilot’s discretion

Right

Left

#100. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft?

Right-hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Left-hand turns / 1 minute outbound

Right-hand turns / 1 minute outbound

#101. Type B instrument app operations with DH below 100 feet and RVR below 300 meters are classified as:

CAT III

CAT III A

CAT III B

#102. Purpose of VSS is to?

Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).

Visual Segment Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach).

Visual Safety Surface purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (including a circling approach).

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Procedures for Air Navigation Services :Aircraft Operation – Air Regulations – RK Bali

Results

#1. PANS-OPS means:

#2. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called:

#3. Which of the following defines transition altitude?

#4. The Transition Level:

#5. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

#6. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

#7. Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?

#8. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:

#9. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

#10. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

#11. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPa when passing:

#12. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to:

#13. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:

#14. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with SSR?

#15. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:

#16. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:

#17. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:

#18. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

#19. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:

#20. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

#21. When the aircraft carries a serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:

#22. During a pre-flight, an SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible:

#23. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

#24. On receipt of a TA, pilots shall:

#25. Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in:

#26. What are the two main objectives of altimeter setting?

#27. Which of the following correctly defines altitude?

#28. Which of the following correctly defines height?

#29. Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

#30. If the QNH is 991 mb where is FL? (Assume 1 mb= 30 ft)

#31. Which of the following is the location of FL?

#32. What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?

#33. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?

#34. If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?

#35. If you are flying en route below the transition level but are well briefed with regard to safety altitude, from where would you get altimeter setting information whilst airborne?

#36. You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10nm from the edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?

#37. You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?

#38. In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration?

#39. What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?

#40. You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?

#41. Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hijacking). Without upsetting the man with the gun, what would you squawk?

#42. What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?

#43. Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

#44. On a single SSR control box/selector system (i.e., no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?

#45. What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

#46. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

#47. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

#48. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:

#49. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?

#50. A radial is:

#51. A circling approach is:

#52. What is the meaning of MEHT?

#53. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:

#54. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:

#55. Maximum permissible bank angle in a holding pattern is _____ degrees:

#56. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

#57. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within:

#58. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:

#59. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:

#60. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

#61. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

#62. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?

#63. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:

#64. SID terminates at:

#65. A public transport aircraft shall not take off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory:

#66. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centreline more than:

#67. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

#68. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

#69. A circling approach is:

#70. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

#71. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach” is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:

#72. If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken?

#73. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

#74. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach…

#75. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:

#76. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

#77. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

#78. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: